202405240900
Status: #idea
Tags: Measure Theory
State: #nascient
Why Is Everything Not Lebesgue Measurable?
The Intuition
Fundamentally, the crux of the proof lies on the fact that in a uniform measure, we require the property of translation independence. Which means that some space on the
One example is the following:
then
as well since I just translated the space by
and you can convince yourself that I can do that infinitely many times.
This is not quite the issue though, because in the above situation we have overlapping sets therefore countable additivity wouldn't apply. But through the use of Equivalence Classes and more specifically through the use of an equivalence relation that makes two things equivalent if they have the same rational modulo, it becomes possible to manufacture a situation where we have uncountably many equivalence classes which cover the gamut of possible values in the space in such a way that the countable additivity axiom is actually usable.
More importantly, since they are equivalence classes, they partition the space (no overlap), which means that here countable additivity IS usable.
Then either we assign a measure to those tiny slivers that is
Since both cases are contradictions, we are in a pinch.
The Proof
Take some uniform measure
...
How To Circumvent that Issue?
- Say bye-bye to the Axiom of Choice
- Replace countable additivity with finite additivity
- Restrict yourself to smaller sets
In modern probability we pretty much invariably do the last one, through the use of Borel-Sigma Algebras. But other situations exist. There is an Axiom of Determinacy which states that if we are ready to reexamine our axioms, all sets are Lebesgue measurable.
References
The Banach-Tarski Paradox and Why Not Everything Is Lebesgue